Case LBO SECAP // 4. Structuring the Financing
Details of the financial analysis
The structuring is described in Module 4. Each tranche of financing is precisely described in order to understand the level of risk borne by the investor and how the expected return of each security is constructed. The module demonstrates that the hierarchy of returns is well respected, as well as the financial balance of the acquiring holding company, which has sufficient cash inflows to remunerate and repay financial receivables.
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The first step of the process consisted in making the financial analysis of the
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target. The second step was about the evaluation of the
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company. Now we can move to the third and last step of the financial
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engineering, which consists in structuring the
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financing.
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We are looking at an acquisition where the transaction price has been
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fully justified by the fundamental value
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analysis. Discounting the free cash flow at the cost of
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capital was the proof that it was a quite good deal, because we used
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quite conservative assumptions.
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Now, the target company is growing, is growing within
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profitability, and what is very important is that the performance is
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quite stable and predictable. The company is a
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cash generator, generating approximately nine hundred million
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in excess cash flow over the next ten years.
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Then there is a capacity to raise debt at the level of the holding company, which
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is going to make the acquisition, but not only raise debt,
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remunerate the debt through financial expenses, through
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coupons, and then obviously repay
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it.
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I propose you the following agenda.
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First, I'm going to give you a general description of all the financial resources
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contributing to the financing of the acquisition.
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Then I'm going to deep dive into each and every source of financing.
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It's going to start with the senior debt, then junior debt, mezzanine
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financing, which consists in high yields subordinate debt,
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and a bond redeemable into shares.
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Last but not least, straight equity ordinary
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shares. But it's not enough to raise the financial
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resources. You have to convince the investors that the cash, which is going to be
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received by the financing company, is going to be
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enough to remunerate the investors and to repay the
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loan. This is why we are going to make a forecast of the
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financial statement of the holding company.
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This analysis will suggest me some observations and
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comments to conclude this module.
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First, let's have a look at the financial environment.
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You remember, interest rates, inflation.
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We are in nineteen ninety when the transaction takes place, and at that time, the
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inflation rate is about three percent.
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The risk-free rate, the government bond rate, is ten percent, which
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is going to be extremely important in order to assess the risk
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premium, which is going to be generated for the investors.
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The transaction price was seven hundred and seventy
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million. Now, how was it financed?
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First, with the shareholders, the owners of the company, straight equity
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ordinary shares contributed to one hundred and sixty million.
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But the main item in the financing, representing sixty percent of
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the financing, is a senior debt with four hundred and fifty
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million. There will be some junior debt, some mezzanine financing,
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ninety million, decomposed into a high yield subordinate
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debt for sixty-seven million on a bond redeemable
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into shares, which is twenty-three million.
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Now, Secap is very cash rich, and some
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part of this cash is going to be used, seventy million, in order
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to contribute to the acquisition of the company
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itself.
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Now, when we analyze this financing, we have to adopt two
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perspectives. First, the investors are attracted
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by a combination of risk, return, and value
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creation. This is a financial performance.
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They have to be remunerated for the risk they have taken.
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So we are going to have a look at each and every financing item,
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understanding what the rate of return is going to be and
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trying to assess if it's high enough.
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But this is about performance. There is also a perspective which is
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about liquidity. The financial equilibrium of the
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acquisition must be reached for the holding
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company, so we are going to have a look at cash flows and
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liquidity. Interestingly, we finance people, we are
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always interested in these two perspectives.
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We are in charge of performance, and we are in charge of liquidity.
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This is exactly the same for this LBO acquisition.
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The first financing item is going to be the senior debt, which is
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again sixty percent of the total financing of the acquisition.
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The amount is four hundred and fifty million.
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You remember that the government bond rate is ten percent?
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Now, the contractual interest rate of the senior debt is going to be
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twelve percent, which demonstrates that the default risk
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premium is two percent. Is it enough?
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Very likely, because the cash flows are quite stable for
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this company, and so it's reasonable to consider that two
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percent pays for the probability of default.
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Is it going to be repaid bullet in fine?
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Is it going to be staggered repayment?
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The second solution is adopted, and so the debt is
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going to be repaid little by little, consistent with
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the financial equilibrium of the holding company.
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So we are going to repay the senior debt when we have enough cash to
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do it.
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The first layer of the mezzanine financing of the junior debt is a
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subordinated bond. What does it mean, subordinated?
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It means that contractually, you cannot remunerate, you
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cannot pay the coupon of the bond, you cannot repay the bond
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before the contractual repayment and
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remuneration of the senior debt is completed, is
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achieved. It is subordinated to. How many
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bonds? Six hundred and seventy subordinated bonds, and the nominal
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value is going to be one hundred thousand per bond.
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The coupon is not going to be stable.
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It's going to start at thirteen point one during a few years
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and fifteen point eight during the last years....
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and you understand that the first coupon is not that high compared with the
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senior debt. The second coupon is significantly
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higher, and you increase the coupon when you have enough
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money to remunerate the loan. Now, there is an
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additional layer in the remuneration, which is the redemption is going to be
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one hundred and forty-three thousand at maturity at the end of the
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process, which is significantly more than the one hundred
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thousand initial nominal value. So the yield for
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the subordinated bondholder is going to be a combination of
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the coupons, which are going to be paid by the debt, plus the
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redemption premium, the forty-three thousand above the
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nominal value, which is going to be paid at maturity.
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Calculating the rate of return, which is anticipated by the investors, is quite
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straightforward. It's a simple actuarial
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calculation: cash out, cash in. Cash
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out is a capital flow. First, you pay one hundred
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thousand to buy the bond, then you receive some coupons
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during three years, thirteen point one percent, and
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during the remaining six years, fifteen point eight
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percent. Then at the end of the process, you receive the last
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coupon, and you're repaid one hundred and forty-three thousand,
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and then you combine all these cash flows.
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You calculate an internal rate of return.
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The internal rate of return is sixteen point eighty-three percent.
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So you understand that the first coupon is just one percent
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above the senior debt, but at the end of the day, the
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subordinated debt, uh, subordinated bond is going to
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generate an actuarial rate of return, which is
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about seven percent more than the government bond rate
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and about five percent more than the debt, the senior
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debt.
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The calculations for the high-yield subordinated bond were
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quite easy. It's a bond with interest,
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second rank against the senior debt.
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It's a high-yield debt, and because it's subordinated, so it's more
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risky. Now, it's going to be a completely different story for the bond,
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which is redeemable in shares. Redeemable is a little
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bit confusing. In fact, it's actually redeemed into
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shares. It's a kind of deferred capital increase.
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You have absolutely no choice. You have absolutely no
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option, such as in a convertible bond.
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In a convertible bond, you decide at maturity if you get your
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cash back or if you convert into shares.
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Here, there is no choice, no alternative, so it's a deferred capital
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increase, and it very much looks like equity.
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So the subordinated bond looks very much like debt with a high
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yield. The bond redeemable in shares is definitely
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equity-like. What are the
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financial characteristics of this bond redeemable in
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shares? First, the amount which is going to be collected by the
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company is twenty-three million.
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The nominal of each and every bond is twenty-six
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thousand. Number of bonds issued, eight hundred and
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eighty-five. Now, the question is, which conversion rate?
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How many shares are you going to get at maturity
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out of the conversion of each and every bond?
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It's one hundred and eighty-five new shares per
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bond, and then it is a bond. Which coupon you're going to receive
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from the issuance to the maturity? It's negligible.
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It's almost zero. It's one percent.
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You remember that for the senior debt, the interest rate was twelve percent,
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government bond, ten percent. Here, the coupon is absolutely
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negligible. So the rate of return is going to be generated
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by the conversion of the bond into
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shares. In order to
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predict the rate of return, which is going to be generated by the bond
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to the investor, we need to identify the cash flows generated
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by the bond. First, there will be the coupons.
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Each and every year, the bond is going to pay a coupon, which is one percent of the
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nominal value. One percent of twenty-six thousand is two hundred and
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sixty French franc each and every year.
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But the second set of cash flow is, in fact, a
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conversion, the value of the one hundred and eighty-five shares at the time
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of the redemption. Time of redemption is exactly the moment where
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we calculate the terminal value of the company.
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You remember, there are three cases.
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The median case is the terminal value is about one point three
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billion.
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Then what will be the number of shares once the conversion is
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exercised? One point six million shares for the ordinary shares,
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plus eight hundred and eighty-five bonds times the
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conversion rate of one hundred and eighty-five shares per
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bond. So the total number of shares is going to be one million
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seven hundred and sixty-three thousand seven hundred and twenty-five
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shares. The value of one share is a terminal value
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divided by the number of shares at that time.
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Again, once the conversion is exercised, which is seven hundred
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and sixteen per share.
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Then we can use these series of cash flows in order to calculate the
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internal rate of return for the investor.
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Cash out, the day the transaction takes place, twenty-six
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thousand. Cash in, ten coupons, two hundred and
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sixty, plus the value of the one hundred and eighty-five shares at
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the time of the redemption. Case one, two, and three, depending on
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the beta, depending on the cost of capital, and then we add to the
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last coupon the value of the one hundred and eighty-five shares.
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We calculate the internal rate of return, and we understand that
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when the WACC is higher, the terminal value is lower, and the
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internal rate of return is nineteen percent.
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With a lower WACC, case two, twenty point four percent.
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Case one, almost twenty-two percent internal rate of
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return for the investor....
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The last stage of the rocket is equity, the ordinary
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shares. Initially, we have one hundred and sixty million
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franc, and we have one point six million ordinary
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shares. They are issued at a unit price of one hundred currency
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units. Now, the holding company will pay no dividend during the
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next ten years. It's very likely in the
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contract. You have to commit yourself contractually not to pay any dividend
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to the shareholders up to the moment the debt is entirely
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repaid. It's probably also a necessity, because we are going to
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need any French franc generated by SECAP to the
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holding company in order to be able to remunerate the investors, in order
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to be able to repay the debt. So the only cash flow for the shareholders
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will be the value of the share in year ten.
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There will be dividends, but later on.
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We calculate an internal rate of return for holding the ordinary
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shares during ten years.
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So the calculation is quite straightforward.
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You buy a share when it is issued, and you pay one hundred.
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No dividend during ten years, and the cash inflow is
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only the value of this share at the end of year
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ten. It is a terminal value per share.
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You remember seven hundred and sixteen for the median case, a bit less for
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case three, a bit more for case one.
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And then you understand that the internal rate of return for the investor is going
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to be ranging from twenty-three to twenty-six
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percent.
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Now we are going to put all these figures together and understand that
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the risk-return hierarchy is respected within the
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set of the financial instruments, and that's the strongest
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point of this case. You remember that capital markets are driven by an
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extremely strong principle: risk aversion.
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I accept to take a risk because I anticipate a return.
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I will accept to take a higher risk if there is a higher risk premium,
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a higher remuneration, which is going to remunerate the incremental
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risk. Now, if you take the risk-free rate, which is government bond rate, it's
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ten percent. Senior debt, even though it represents sixty
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percent of the financing, is not subordinated to anything.
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00:14:27.764 --> 00:14:31.534
It's a contractual debt, and it's about predictable cash flows.
243
00:14:31.544 --> 00:14:34.814
This is why the risk premium is two percent, which is quite fair and
244
00:14:34.844 --> 00:14:38.124
realistic. Senior debt, twelve percent.
245
00:14:38.144 --> 00:14:41.784
There is another debt with a contractual interest, a
246
00:14:41.824 --> 00:14:44.864
subordinated bond, but it's riskier because it's
247
00:14:44.874 --> 00:14:48.794
subordinated, and then the internal rate of return we anticipate out
248
00:14:48.844 --> 00:14:52.534
of this subordinated debt is sixteen point eight
249
00:14:52.624 --> 00:14:56.564
percent, a higher risk premium. Then we move from debt to
250
00:14:56.684 --> 00:15:00.524
equity. We have equity, which is straightforward equity
251
00:15:00.884 --> 00:15:03.904
issued today, and we have deferred equity.
252
00:15:03.944 --> 00:15:07.604
The deferred equity is going to receive a coupon, so there's a
253
00:15:07.744 --> 00:15:11.464
little bit of a bond inside the bond redeemable in
254
00:15:11.544 --> 00:15:15.384
shares. This is why it's a bit less risky than the ordinary
255
00:15:15.404 --> 00:15:19.053
shares. And if you look at the range of internal rate of
256
00:15:19.104 --> 00:15:21.824
return, it's nineteen to twenty-two.
257
00:15:21.884 --> 00:15:25.584
Ordinary shares, twenty-three to twenty-six percent.
258
00:15:25.604 --> 00:15:29.544
It's a bit more risky. This is why it deserves a higher internal
259
00:15:29.784 --> 00:15:33.504
rate of return. So you have a perfect hierarchy,
260
00:15:33.684 --> 00:15:35.224
risk/return.
261
00:15:37.444 --> 00:15:41.344
But now we have to get back to the calculation, understanding that there
262
00:15:41.404 --> 00:15:45.284
was a fundamental assumption. We have calculated the
263
00:15:45.324 --> 00:15:49.284
return investment for the ordinary shares and the bonds redeemable
264
00:15:49.344 --> 00:15:53.284
in shares, but we have said that the terminal value
265
00:15:53.404 --> 00:15:56.204
is the value which is attributable to the shareholders.
266
00:15:56.264 --> 00:15:59.064
The underlying assumption is that there is no debt.
267
00:15:59.104 --> 00:16:02.664
So we have to make sure that the financial holding debt
268
00:16:02.804 --> 00:16:06.164
is fully repaid at the end of this period of ten
269
00:16:06.224 --> 00:16:09.833
years. Otherwise, we are going to be forced to take the terminal value
270
00:16:10.304 --> 00:16:14.004
minus the debt at maturity. It's not the calculation we
271
00:16:14.024 --> 00:16:17.904
made. Now we have to check about liquidity and the repayment and the
272
00:16:17.924 --> 00:16:20.944
redemption of the senior debt and the
273
00:16:21.364 --> 00:16:23.384
subordinated bond.
274
00:16:25.084 --> 00:16:27.824
Now we are going to make the financial forecast.
275
00:16:27.844 --> 00:16:31.664
We are going to forecast the financial statements of the holding company.
276
00:16:31.674 --> 00:16:35.274
The holding company is Financière SECAP, and it's financed by
277
00:16:35.344 --> 00:16:39.004
equity and by debt. The cash inflows
278
00:16:39.044 --> 00:16:42.944
received by La Financière SECAP is about dividends paid
279
00:16:42.964 --> 00:16:46.584
by SECAP, but also excess cash, which is going to be
280
00:16:46.684 --> 00:16:50.424
returned from SECAP to the mother company because the company
281
00:16:50.784 --> 00:16:54.004
is generating more cash than its net income.
282
00:16:54.064 --> 00:16:58.024
Cash outflows, interest expense to the debt, and repayment
283
00:16:58.124 --> 00:17:02.104
of at least part of the debt, because some debt is going to be redeemed
284
00:17:02.244 --> 00:17:05.984
into shares. The objective is clearly a balance between
285
00:17:06.065 --> 00:17:09.634
cash in and cash outflows during these
286
00:17:09.634 --> 00:17:13.134
next ten years, so that the holding company can
287
00:17:13.164 --> 00:17:16.644
merge with its investment with SECAP at the end of the
288
00:17:16.664 --> 00:17:20.384
period. But the constraint is no additional
289
00:17:20.644 --> 00:17:24.585
debt at the level of the financial holding, and then it's going to be a success
290
00:17:24.664 --> 00:17:28.545
because there will be no debt at the level of SECAP and no debt at the
291
00:17:28.584 --> 00:17:30.724
level of the Financière SECAP.
292
00:17:32.964 --> 00:17:36.444
Now we can start forecasting the financial statements of Financière
293
00:17:36.484 --> 00:17:40.184
SECAP. We're going to start with the P&L and the cash flow statement
294
00:17:40.464 --> 00:17:43.004
and then move to the balance sheet.
295
00:17:43.044 --> 00:17:46.964
The question will be, when we look at an item, is it a P&L item
296
00:17:47.484 --> 00:17:51.384
and/or is it a cash item? Let's start with the dividends, which
297
00:17:51.404 --> 00:17:53.624
are received by Financière SECAP from SECAP.
298
00:17:53.644 --> 00:17:56.484
It's one hundred percent of the net income of SECAP.
299
00:17:56.564 --> 00:17:58.874
It's an interest, it's a financial income.
300
00:17:58.904 --> 00:18:02.884
It is in the P&L. But SECAP is generating more cash
301
00:18:02.924 --> 00:18:06.804
than its net income and is going to transfer the cash surpluses, the
302
00:18:06.844 --> 00:18:10.504
excess cash, to the financial holding. It's a transfer.
303
00:18:10.544 --> 00:18:14.004
It's a financing. It has absolutely nothing to do with an
304
00:18:14.084 --> 00:18:16.764
income, so it will not be in the P&L.
305
00:18:16.804 --> 00:18:19.062
It will be in the cash flow statement....
306
00:18:19.072 --> 00:18:22.712
Then, of course, there will be some financial expenses in the P&L
307
00:18:23.112 --> 00:18:27.032
and senior debt repayment in a cash flow statement.
308
00:18:27.112 --> 00:18:30.752
About the mezzanine financing, there will be coupons, which are going to
309
00:18:30.812 --> 00:18:33.912
be in the P&L, and repayment in a cash flow
310
00:18:33.992 --> 00:18:37.952
statement. Coupons paid by the subordinated bond and by
311
00:18:37.972 --> 00:18:41.772
the bond redeemable into shares. But the bond redeemable
312
00:18:41.812 --> 00:18:45.512
into shares is, in fact, redeemed into shares, and it's going to be an
313
00:18:45.612 --> 00:18:48.612
equity issue at the end of the process.
314
00:18:48.692 --> 00:18:51.932
What about the subordinated bond? It's going to be repaid.
315
00:18:51.952 --> 00:18:55.612
It's cash out. Last but not least, there's a tax
316
00:18:56.092 --> 00:18:58.312
question, which is quite interesting.
317
00:18:58.512 --> 00:19:02.272
As Financière Secap holds one hundred percent of Secap, there will be a tax
318
00:19:02.372 --> 00:19:05.132
integration between these two companies.
319
00:19:05.152 --> 00:19:08.672
And so when Financière Secap is paying some interest
320
00:19:08.712 --> 00:19:12.232
expense, financial expense, and coupons, it's going to
321
00:19:12.292 --> 00:19:16.092
generate tax savings because Secap itself
322
00:19:16.212 --> 00:19:20.132
is profitable, and these income tax savings are going to be put at the
323
00:19:20.192 --> 00:19:22.892
credit of the P&L of La Financière
324
00:19:22.911 --> 00:19:24.212
Secap.
325
00:19:25.912 --> 00:19:29.392
Now let's have a look at what is anticipated for Financière Secap, the
326
00:19:29.472 --> 00:19:32.632
financial holding, for the next ten years.
327
00:19:32.672 --> 00:19:36.402
P&L first, financial income, dividends received from
328
00:19:36.492 --> 00:19:40.342
Secap, and then interest expense, financial expense for the
329
00:19:40.412 --> 00:19:44.352
senior debt, for the bond redeemable in shares, and for the subordinated
330
00:19:44.512 --> 00:19:48.122
bonds. These are interest expenses, of course, in the
331
00:19:48.192 --> 00:19:51.792
P&L. But you remember that if you accrue for some
332
00:19:51.872 --> 00:19:55.732
interest expense and Secap is generating profit,
333
00:19:55.742 --> 00:19:59.332
there will be some tax savings because of tax consolidation.
334
00:19:59.352 --> 00:20:03.052
It's going to be put at the credit of the P&L of the financial
335
00:20:03.192 --> 00:20:07.162
holding. So you get to the holding profit, and then it's about
336
00:20:07.292 --> 00:20:11.252
cash out. The redemption of the senior debt, little by
337
00:20:11.332 --> 00:20:14.732
little, year after year. There will be also the
338
00:20:14.752 --> 00:20:18.692
redemption of their subordinated bonds at the end of the process.
339
00:20:18.712 --> 00:20:22.632
There is no redemption for the bonds redeemable into shares because they are
340
00:20:22.652 --> 00:20:26.092
going to be converted into shares. There is no cash out.
341
00:20:26.132 --> 00:20:29.912
There will be a cash inflow, which is a cash returns from Secap.
342
00:20:29.932 --> 00:20:33.892
This cash in excess generated by Secap, which is going to be transferred
343
00:20:33.932 --> 00:20:37.872
to the financial holding as a source of financing.
344
00:20:38.152 --> 00:20:42.052
You calculate all the cash in and cash outflows, and you get to the
345
00:20:42.092 --> 00:20:45.312
change in the holding cash position.
346
00:20:47.272 --> 00:20:50.472
Then we can move to the financial balance sheet of Financière
347
00:20:50.512 --> 00:20:54.332
Secap. The initial balance sheet when the transaction takes place in
348
00:20:54.392 --> 00:20:57.572
nineteen eighty-nine. Asset side, financial fixed
349
00:20:57.652 --> 00:21:01.372
asset, the value which is paid for the transaction, seven
350
00:21:01.472 --> 00:21:04.852
hundred and seventy. No cash initially.
351
00:21:04.892 --> 00:21:08.672
On the equity and liability side, the financing of the deal, one hundred and sixty
352
00:21:08.792 --> 00:21:12.752
million for ordinary shares, twenty-three for the bonds redeemable in
353
00:21:12.792 --> 00:21:16.212
shares, sixty-seven for the subordinated bond.
354
00:21:16.252 --> 00:21:18.992
So shareholders' equity, plus mezzanine, plus
355
00:21:19.032 --> 00:21:22.212
quasi-equity, it's two hundred and fifty.
356
00:21:22.252 --> 00:21:25.972
Senior debt, four hundred and fifty, and the Secap financing, which comes
357
00:21:25.992 --> 00:21:29.232
from the company which you acquired, is seventy.
358
00:21:29.272 --> 00:21:32.832
You have a matching between assets and equity and liabilities, which is quite good
359
00:21:32.872 --> 00:21:36.492
news, and you have initially the deal and its
360
00:21:36.572 --> 00:21:40.432
financing. Then what's going to happen throughout the years?
361
00:21:40.472 --> 00:21:43.532
There are some figures which are going to change, and there are some figures which
362
00:21:43.592 --> 00:21:46.882
are going to be stable. Financial fixed asset is stable.
363
00:21:46.912 --> 00:21:50.652
It's seven hundred and seventy. It's a historical purchasing price you paid for the
364
00:21:50.712 --> 00:21:54.312
transaction. Cash is going to be incremented or
365
00:21:54.352 --> 00:21:57.532
decremented by the increase or decrease in the cash
366
00:21:57.632 --> 00:22:01.012
position, which is a cash flow statement, uh, the previous
367
00:22:01.092 --> 00:22:04.852
slide. Shareholders' equity is going to be incremented by
368
00:22:04.932 --> 00:22:07.812
the profit generated by the financial
369
00:22:07.872 --> 00:22:11.762
holding. Interestingly, at the end of the process,
370
00:22:11.812 --> 00:22:15.412
in nineteen ninety-nine, what's going to happen to the shareholders'
371
00:22:15.552 --> 00:22:19.512
equity is that it's going to receive the profit generated by the
372
00:22:19.552 --> 00:22:23.152
financial holding at the end. It's going to also receive an
373
00:22:23.192 --> 00:22:27.132
equity issue, which is a redemption of the bond redeemable in shares, which is
374
00:22:27.172 --> 00:22:29.572
going to be transformed into equity.
375
00:22:29.581 --> 00:22:33.552
And there will be a kind of a loss because the company is going to repay
376
00:22:33.562 --> 00:22:37.192
the subordinated bond at a price which is more than the
377
00:22:37.312 --> 00:22:41.272
initial nominal value of the bond and is going to decrement the shareholders'
378
00:22:41.432 --> 00:22:45.252
equity. Bond redeemable into shares, twenty-three, up to
379
00:22:45.312 --> 00:22:48.932
the transformation into equity. Subordinated bonds,
380
00:22:48.992 --> 00:22:52.192
sixty-seven, up to the moment it is repaid.
381
00:22:52.272 --> 00:22:55.752
Senior debt is repaid little by little, and the Secap
382
00:22:55.812 --> 00:22:59.752
financing is incremented each and every year by the cash in excess
383
00:22:59.812 --> 00:23:03.532
generated by Secap and transferred to the financial holding.
384
00:23:03.572 --> 00:23:07.212
So what do we observe here? Is that the cash situation is
385
00:23:07.232 --> 00:23:10.732
always positive, not that much, but always
386
00:23:10.812 --> 00:23:14.472
positive, and we don't need to increase the debt at the level of the
387
00:23:14.532 --> 00:23:18.412
financial Secap, which was exactly the constraint which was
388
00:23:18.572 --> 00:23:21.372
imposed by the financing.
389
00:23:23.272 --> 00:23:27.172
Now, we can consolidate ten years of activity of Financière
390
00:23:27.212 --> 00:23:30.472
Secap, of the financial holding, P&L, cash flow
391
00:23:30.592 --> 00:23:34.452
statement, and balance sheet. But when you look at cash in
392
00:23:34.492 --> 00:23:37.862
and cash outlays, it's quite interesting to observe the balance.
393
00:23:38.692 --> 00:23:41.772
In fact, the company is going to cash in a billion
394
00:23:42.332 --> 00:23:45.832
dividends received from Secap, one hundred percent of the net income.
395
00:23:45.852 --> 00:23:49.532
Cash returns to holding because there is cash in excess of the net income,
396
00:23:49.992 --> 00:23:52.812
and the tax savings on the interest expense because of tax
397
00:23:52.892 --> 00:23:55.692
consolidation between the mother company and the
398
00:23:55.732 --> 00:23:59.052
investment. This is cash in. What about cash out?
399
00:23:59.112 --> 00:24:03.012
Interest expense for the senior debt, a bit more than three hundred and fifty
400
00:24:03.112 --> 00:24:07.052
million. The redemption of the senior debt, four hundred and
401
00:24:07.152 --> 00:24:10.892
fifty million. The sum is eight hundred million, so it is a
402
00:24:10.932 --> 00:24:13.432
consumption of cash for the company.
403
00:24:13.442 --> 00:24:17.412
And now there will be some coupons paid for the subordinated bond, for the
404
00:24:17.432 --> 00:24:20.822
bond redeemable to shares, and the redemption of the subordinated
405
00:24:21.092 --> 00:24:24.614
debt, which is almost one billion....
406
00:24:24.624 --> 00:24:28.524
cash in minus cash out is exactly the nine million which
407
00:24:28.584 --> 00:24:32.044
you observe in the balance sheet, cash at the end of the process
408
00:24:32.584 --> 00:24:36.404
when everything is over at the end of this LBO.
409
00:24:39.004 --> 00:24:42.944
When we look at the initial financing structure of the company and the evolution of
410
00:24:42.984 --> 00:24:46.444
the financial statements of Financière Secap throughout the years,
411
00:24:47.004 --> 00:24:50.704
there are a few observations. First, it's a sophisticated
412
00:24:50.784 --> 00:24:54.584
financial engineering. It's a financial structure with no
413
00:24:54.864 --> 00:24:56.824
options, no optional instruments.
414
00:24:56.833 --> 00:24:59.584
There is no convertible bond, there is no warrant.
415
00:24:59.604 --> 00:25:03.344
It's just about straight subordinated debt, straight
416
00:25:03.484 --> 00:25:07.444
senior debt, and bonds redeemable into shares, but with no
417
00:25:07.544 --> 00:25:11.084
option in sight. You don't need to put options in financial
418
00:25:11.244 --> 00:25:13.884
engineering. Now, what about the leverage?
419
00:25:14.244 --> 00:25:18.024
Equity plus the bond, which is redeemable in shares, which
420
00:25:18.184 --> 00:25:21.584
is deferred equity issue, is one hundred and eighty-three
421
00:25:21.684 --> 00:25:25.624
million. Subordinated and senior debt, it's five
422
00:25:25.704 --> 00:25:29.184
hundred and seventeen. So it's a high leverage.
423
00:25:29.244 --> 00:25:32.994
The original debt is three times the equity and
424
00:25:33.224 --> 00:25:36.764
four times the EBITDA, even though the EBITDA is quite
425
00:25:36.804 --> 00:25:39.944
high. So it's really a leverage, a highly
426
00:25:40.044 --> 00:25:43.484
leveraged buyout. Then we have the financing
427
00:25:43.544 --> 00:25:46.644
instruments, and we have calculated the rate of return, which can be
428
00:25:46.664 --> 00:25:50.264
predicted. The interest rate hierarchy is fully
429
00:25:50.284 --> 00:25:54.004
respected. There is a remuneration for the risk.
430
00:25:54.044 --> 00:25:57.664
Now, is it enough? The answer is yes, because the company found
431
00:25:57.764 --> 00:26:01.284
investors for each and every layer of financing
432
00:26:01.384 --> 00:26:05.364
instrument. Last but not least, it was absolutely fundamental
433
00:26:05.444 --> 00:26:08.324
to demonstrate the holding company's financial
434
00:26:08.384 --> 00:26:12.144
equilibrium. Each and every year, of course, we have the
435
00:26:12.164 --> 00:26:16.124
balance sheet, which is balancing, but cash in and cash out
436
00:26:16.224 --> 00:26:19.884
is absolutely okay each and every year and at the end.
437
00:26:19.944 --> 00:26:23.724
So we have achieved something which is cash inflows are high
438
00:26:23.784 --> 00:26:27.194
enough to meet the financial requirements of the
439
00:26:27.264 --> 00:26:30.344
company, pay the coupon, and repay the loans.
440
00:26:32.744 --> 00:26:35.104
A few comments to conclude this module.
441
00:26:35.184 --> 00:26:38.194
First, we have observed that there is a lot of debt in the financing.
442
00:26:38.244 --> 00:26:42.164
This is really a highly leveraged buyout.
443
00:26:42.184 --> 00:26:45.964
But if you introduce debt in a financing, you introduce financial
444
00:26:46.044 --> 00:26:48.504
risk. Can you afford financial risk?
445
00:26:48.524 --> 00:26:52.364
The answer is yes, if the operating risk is low, which is exactly the
446
00:26:52.424 --> 00:26:54.904
case. The operating risk is quite modest.
447
00:26:54.924 --> 00:26:58.424
Because of the contract, the cash flows are quite stable.
448
00:26:58.504 --> 00:27:01.264
There is visibility in this industry.
449
00:27:01.344 --> 00:27:03.864
As a consequence, the operating risk is low.
450
00:27:03.884 --> 00:27:07.834
But you cannot combine a high operating risk and a high financing
451
00:27:07.904 --> 00:27:11.264
risk. This is absolutely fundamental.
452
00:27:11.324 --> 00:27:15.244
Second thing, there is a lot of debt, and the financial structure is quite
453
00:27:15.364 --> 00:27:19.004
tight. At the end of the day, we need each and every currency
454
00:27:19.144 --> 00:27:22.924
unit coming from Secap to make the balance of the cash flow statement
455
00:27:23.324 --> 00:27:26.884
of the Financière Secap. Imagine that there are some
456
00:27:26.924 --> 00:27:29.844
difficulties for La Financière Secap.
457
00:27:29.864 --> 00:27:33.644
Well, there will be some buffer, some security coming from Secap's balance
458
00:27:33.664 --> 00:27:37.124
sheet, because at the level of the industrial companies, there is no
459
00:27:37.264 --> 00:27:41.124
debt. So you can put a little bit of debt at the level of Secap in
460
00:27:41.164 --> 00:27:44.964
order to make sure that La Financière Secap is going to have enough
461
00:27:45.004 --> 00:27:47.524
financing. Now, these are
462
00:27:47.844 --> 00:27:51.644
predictions. It's about forecasts for the future.
463
00:27:51.724 --> 00:27:55.484
Now you have to transform a forecast into a reality, and
464
00:27:55.524 --> 00:27:59.124
this is why this is true for this LBO and for each and every
465
00:27:59.264 --> 00:28:02.884
LBO, the quality of execution is going to be absolutely
466
00:28:02.944 --> 00:28:06.624
critical. Now you have to generate the revenues, the
467
00:28:06.664 --> 00:28:10.334
EBITDA, the deferred income, the deferred revenues, the
468
00:28:10.424 --> 00:28:14.394
negative working capital requirement, the capital expenditures, the free cash flow,
469
00:28:14.424 --> 00:28:18.204
et cetera. Now you have to transform predictions into reality, and
470
00:28:18.244 --> 00:28:21.344
then it's going to be the success of the transaction.
471
00:28:21.384 --> 00:28:24.924
But quality of execution is absolutely critical.
472
00:28:25.784 --> 00:28:29.624
Last but not least, we have proposed a financial structure
473
00:28:29.644 --> 00:28:33.543
which is quite clever, but it is not the one
474
00:28:33.704 --> 00:28:37.024
unique financial structure which can be considered.
475
00:28:37.084 --> 00:28:40.884
It's relevant, it's coherent in terms of yield, of
476
00:28:40.964 --> 00:28:44.224
cash, of risk, of return, et cetera.
477
00:28:44.244 --> 00:28:46.624
But there is no options, there is no convertibles.
478
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We could imagine other financial structures.
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The objective was absolutely not to try to optimize the balance
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sheet, but there was a constraint.
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The investors are going to be happy, because if the investor
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satisfaction is not met by the financial engineering, there will be
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simply no investor, and then there will be no
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leveraged buyout. Investor satisfaction is the
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heart of this issue, is the heart of this
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structure.
The first step of the process consisted in making the financial analysis of the target.
The second step was about the evaluation of the company.
Now we can move to the third and last step of the financial engineering, which consists in structuring the financing.
We are looking at an acquisition where the transaction price has been fully justified by the fundamental value analysis.
Discounting the free cash flow at the cost of capital was the proof that it was a quite good deal, because we used quite conservative assumptions.
Now, the target company is growing, is growing within profitability, and what is very important is that the performance is quite stable and predictable.
The company is a cash generator, generating approximately nine hundred million in excess cash flow over the next ten years.
Then there is a capacity to raise debt at the level of the holding company, which is going to make the acquisition, but not only raise debt, remunerate the debt through financial expenses, through coupons, and then obviously repay it.
I propose you the following agenda.
First, I'm going to give you a general description of all the financial resources contributing to the financing of the acquisition.
Then I'm going to deep dive into each and every source of financing.
It's going to start with the senior debt, then junior debt, mezzanine financing, which consists in high yields subordinate debt, and a bond redeemable into shares.
Last but not least, straight equity ordinary shares.
But it's not enough to raise the financial resources.
You have to convince the investors that the cash, which is going to be received by the financing company, is going to be enough to remunerate the investors and to repay the loan.
This is why we are going to make a forecast of the financial statement of the holding company.
This analysis will suggest me some observations and comments to conclude this module.
First, let's have a look at the financial environment.
You remember, interest rates, inflation.
We are in nineteen ninety when the transaction takes place, and at that time, the inflation rate is about three percent.
The risk-free rate, the government bond rate, is ten percent, which is going to be extremely important in order to assess the risk premium, which is going to be generated for the investors.
The transaction price was seven hundred and seventy million.
Now, how was it financed? First, with the shareholders, the owners of the company, straight equity ordinary shares contributed to one hundred and sixty million.
But the main item in the financing, representing sixty percent of the financing, is a senior debt with four hundred and fifty million.
There will be some junior debt, some mezzanine financing, ninety million, decomposed into a high yield subordinate debt for sixty-seven million on a bond redeemable into shares, which is twenty-three million.
Now, Secap is very cash rich, and some part of this cash is going to be used, seventy million, in order to contribute to the acquisition of the company itself.
Now, when we analyze this financing, we have to adopt two perspectives.
First, the investors are attracted by a combination of risk, return, and value creation.
This is a financial performance.
They have to be remunerated for the risk they have taken.
So we are going to have a look at each and every financing item, understanding what the rate of return is going to be and trying to assess if it's high enough.
But this is about performance.
There is also a perspective which is about liquidity.
The financial equilibrium of the acquisition must be reached for the holding company, so we are going to have a look at cash flows and liquidity.
Interestingly, we finance people, we are always interested in these two perspectives.
We are in charge of performance, and we are in charge of liquidity.
This is exactly the same for this LBO acquisition.
The first financing item is going to be the senior debt, which is again sixty percent of the total financing of the acquisition.
The amount is four hundred and fifty million.
You remember that the government bond rate is ten percent? Now, the contractual interest rate of the senior debt is going to be twelve percent, which demonstrates that the default risk premium is two percent.
Is it enough? Very likely, because the cash flows are quite stable for this company, and so it's reasonable to consider that two percent pays for the probability of default.
Is it going to be repaid bullet in fine? Is it going to be staggered repayment? The second solution is adopted, and so the debt is going to be repaid little by little, consistent with the financial equilibrium of the holding company.
So we are going to repay the senior debt when we have enough cash to do it.
The first layer of the mezzanine financing of the junior debt is a subordinated bond.
What does it mean, subordinated? It means that contractually, you cannot remunerate, you cannot pay the coupon of the bond, you cannot repay the bond before the contractual repayment and remuneration of the senior debt is completed, is achieved.
It is subordinated to.
How many bonds? Six hundred and seventy subordinated bonds, and the nominal value is going to be one hundred thousand per bond.
The coupon is not going to be stable.
It's going to start at thirteen point one during a few years and fifteen point eight during the last years....
and you understand that the first coupon is not that high compared with the senior debt.
The second coupon is significantly higher, and you increase the coupon when you have enough money to remunerate the loan.
Now, there is an additional layer in the remuneration, which is the redemption is going to be one hundred and forty-three thousand at maturity at the end of the process, which is significantly more than the one hundred thousand initial nominal value.
So the yield for the subordinated bondholder is going to be a combination of the coupons, which are going to be paid by the debt, plus the redemption premium, the forty-three thousand above the nominal value, which is going to be paid at maturity.
Calculating the rate of return, which is anticipated by the investors, is quite straightforward.
It's a simple actuarial calculation: cash out, cash in.
Cash out is a capital flow.
First, you pay one hundred thousand to buy the bond, then you receive some coupons during three years, thirteen point one percent, and during the remaining six years, fifteen point eight percent.
Then at the end of the process, you receive the last coupon, and you're repaid one hundred and forty-three thousand, and then you combine all these cash flows.
You calculate an internal rate of return.
The internal rate of return is sixteen point eighty-three percent.
So you understand that the first coupon is just one percent above the senior debt, but at the end of the day, the subordinated debt, uh, subordinated bond is going to generate an actuarial rate of return, which is about seven percent more than the government bond rate and about five percent more than the debt, the senior debt.
The calculations for the high-yield subordinated bond were quite easy.
It's a bond with interest, second rank against the senior debt.
It's a high-yield debt, and because it's subordinated, so it's more risky.
Now, it's going to be a completely different story for the bond, which is redeemable in shares.
Redeemable is a little bit confusing.
In fact, it's actually redeemed into shares.
It's a kind of deferred capital increase.
You have absolutely no choice.
You have absolutely no option, such as in a convertible bond.
In a convertible bond, you decide at maturity if you get your cash back or if you convert into shares.
Here, there is no choice, no alternative, so it's a deferred capital increase, and it very much looks like equity.
So the subordinated bond looks very much like debt with a high yield.
The bond redeemable in shares is definitely equity-like.
What are the financial characteristics of this bond redeemable in shares? First, the amount which is going to be collected by the company is twenty-three million.
The nominal of each and every bond is twenty-six thousand.
Number of bonds issued, eight hundred and eighty-five.
Now, the question is, which conversion rate? How many shares are you going to get at maturity out of the conversion of each and every bond? It's one hundred and eighty-five new shares per bond, and then it is a bond.
Which coupon you're going to receive from the issuance to the maturity? It's negligible.
It's almost zero.
It's one percent.
You remember that for the senior debt, the interest rate was twelve percent, government bond, ten percent.
Here, the coupon is absolutely negligible.
So the rate of return is going to be generated by the conversion of the bond into shares.
In order to predict the rate of return, which is going to be generated by the bond to the investor, we need to identify the cash flows generated by the bond.
First, there will be the coupons.
Each and every year, the bond is going to pay a coupon, which is one percent of the nominal value.
One percent of twenty-six thousand is two hundred and sixty French franc each and every year.
But the second set of cash flow is, in fact, a conversion, the value of the one hundred and eighty-five shares at the time of the redemption.
Time of redemption is exactly the moment where we calculate the terminal value of the company.
You remember, there are three cases.
The median case is the terminal value is about one point three billion.
Then what will be the number of shares once the conversion is exercised? One point six million shares for the ordinary shares, plus eight hundred and eighty-five bonds times the conversion rate of one hundred and eighty-five shares per bond.
So the total number of shares is going to be one million seven hundred and sixty-three thousand seven hundred and twenty-five shares.
The value of one share is a terminal value divided by the number of shares at that time.
Again, once the conversion is exercised, which is seven hundred and sixteen per share.
Then we can use these series of cash flows in order to calculate the internal rate of return for the investor.
Cash out, the day the transaction takes place, twenty-six thousand.
Cash in, ten coupons, two hundred and sixty, plus the value of the one hundred and eighty-five shares at the time of the redemption.
Case one, two, and three, depending on the beta, depending on the cost of capital, and then we add to the last coupon the value of the one hundred and eighty-five shares.
We calculate the internal rate of return, and we understand that when the WACC is higher, the terminal value is lower, and the internal rate of return is nineteen percent.
With a lower WACC, case two, twenty point four percent.
Case one, almost twenty-two percent internal rate of return for the investor....
The last stage of the rocket is equity, the ordinary shares.
Initially, we have one hundred and sixty million franc, and we have one point six million ordinary shares.
They are issued at a unit price of one hundred currency units.
Now, the holding company will pay no dividend during the next ten years.
It's very likely in the contract.
You have to commit yourself contractually not to pay any dividend to the shareholders up to the moment the debt is entirely repaid.
It's probably also a necessity, because we are going to need any French franc generated by SECAP to the holding company in order to be able to remunerate the investors, in order to be able to repay the debt.
So the only cash flow for the shareholders will be the value of the share in year ten.
There will be dividends, but later on.
We calculate an internal rate of return for holding the ordinary shares during ten years.
So the calculation is quite straightforward.
You buy a share when it is issued, and you pay one hundred.
No dividend during ten years, and the cash inflow is only the value of this share at the end of year ten.
It is a terminal value per share.
You remember seven hundred and sixteen for the median case, a bit less for case three, a bit more for case one.
And then you understand that the internal rate of return for the investor is going to be ranging from twenty-three to twenty-six percent.
Now we are going to put all these figures together and understand that the risk-return hierarchy is respected within the set of the financial instruments, and that's the strongest point of this case.
You remember that capital markets are driven by an extremely strong principle: risk aversion.
I accept to take a risk because I anticipate a return.
I will accept to take a higher risk if there is a higher risk premium, a higher remuneration, which is going to remunerate the incremental risk.
Now, if you take the risk-free rate, which is government bond rate, it's ten percent.
Senior debt, even though it represents sixty percent of the financing, is not subordinated to anything.
It's a contractual debt, and it's about predictable cash flows.
This is why the risk premium is two percent, which is quite fair and realistic.
Senior debt, twelve percent.
There is another debt with a contractual interest, a subordinated bond, but it's riskier because it's subordinated, and then the internal rate of return we anticipate out of this subordinated debt is sixteen point eight percent, a higher risk premium.
Then we move from debt to equity.
We have equity, which is straightforward equity issued today, and we have deferred equity.
The deferred equity is going to receive a coupon, so there's a little bit of a bond inside the bond redeemable in shares.
This is why it's a bit less risky than the ordinary shares.
And if you look at the range of internal rate of return, it's nineteen to twenty-two.
Ordinary shares, twenty-three to twenty-six percent.
It's a bit more risky.
This is why it deserves a higher internal rate of return.
So you have a perfect hierarchy, risk/return.
But now we have to get back to the calculation, understanding that there was a fundamental assumption.
We have calculated the return investment for the ordinary shares and the bonds redeemable in shares, but we have said that the terminal value is the value which is attributable to the shareholders.
The underlying assumption is that there is no debt.
So we have to make sure that the financial holding debt is fully repaid at the end of this period of ten years.
Otherwise, we are going to be forced to take the terminal value minus the debt at maturity.
It's not the calculation we made.
Now we have to check about liquidity and the repayment and the redemption of the senior debt and the subordinated bond.
Now we are going to make the financial forecast.
We are going to forecast the financial statements of the holding company.
The holding company is Financière SECAP, and it's financed by equity and by debt.
The cash inflows received by La Financière SECAP is about dividends paid by SECAP, but also excess cash, which is going to be returned from SECAP to the mother company because the company is generating more cash than its net income.
Cash outflows, interest expense to the debt, and repayment of at least part of the debt, because some debt is going to be redeemed into shares.
The objective is clearly a balance between cash in and cash outflows during these next ten years, so that the holding company can merge with its investment with SECAP at the end of the period.
But the constraint is no additional debt at the level of the financial holding, and then it's going to be a success because there will be no debt at the level of SECAP and no debt at the level of the Financière SECAP.
Now we can start forecasting the financial statements of Financière SECAP.
We're going to start with the P&L and the cash flow statement and then move to the balance sheet.
The question will be, when we look at an item, is it a P&L item and/or is it a cash item? Let's start with the dividends, which are received by Financière SECAP from SECAP.
It's one hundred percent of the net income of SECAP.
It's an interest, it's a financial income.
It is in the P&L.
But SECAP is generating more cash than its net income and is going to transfer the cash surpluses, the excess cash, to the financial holding.
It's a transfer.
It's a financing.
It has absolutely nothing to do with an income, so it will not be in the P&L.
It will be in the cash flow statement....
Then, of course, there will be some financial expenses in the P&L and senior debt repayment in a cash flow statement.
About the mezzanine financing, there will be coupons, which are going to be in the P&L, and repayment in a cash flow statement.
Coupons paid by the subordinated bond and by the bond redeemable into shares.
But the bond redeemable into shares is, in fact, redeemed into shares, and it's going to be an equity issue at the end of the process.
What about the subordinated bond? It's going to be repaid.
It's cash out.
Last but not least, there's a tax question, which is quite interesting.
As Financière Secap holds one hundred percent of Secap, there will be a tax integration between these two companies.
And so when Financière Secap is paying some interest expense, financial expense, and coupons, it's going to generate tax savings because Secap itself is profitable, and these income tax savings are going to be put at the credit of the P&L of La Financière Secap.
Now let's have a look at what is anticipated for Financière Secap, the financial holding, for the next ten years.
P&L first, financial income, dividends received from Secap, and then interest expense, financial expense for the senior debt, for the bond redeemable in shares, and for the subordinated bonds.
These are interest expenses, of course, in the P&L.
But you remember that if you accrue for some interest expense and Secap is generating profit, there will be some tax savings because of tax consolidation.
It's going to be put at the credit of the P&L of the financial holding.
So you get to the holding profit, and then it's about cash out.
The redemption of the senior debt, little by little, year after year.
There will be also the redemption of their subordinated bonds at the end of the process.
There is no redemption for the bonds redeemable into shares because they are going to be converted into shares.
There is no cash out.
There will be a cash inflow, which is a cash returns from Secap.
This cash in excess generated by Secap, which is going to be transferred to the financial holding as a source of financing.
You calculate all the cash in and cash outflows, and you get to the change in the holding cash position.
Then we can move to the financial balance sheet of Financière Secap.
The initial balance sheet when the transaction takes place in nineteen eighty-nine.
Asset side, financial fixed asset, the value which is paid for the transaction, seven hundred and seventy.
No cash initially.
On the equity and liability side, the financing of the deal, one hundred and sixty million for ordinary shares, twenty-three for the bonds redeemable in shares, sixty-seven for the subordinated bond.
So shareholders' equity, plus mezzanine, plus quasi-equity, it's two hundred and fifty.
Senior debt, four hundred and fifty, and the Secap financing, which comes from the company which you acquired, is seventy.
You have a matching between assets and equity and liabilities, which is quite good news, and you have initially the deal and its financing.
Then what's going to happen throughout the years? There are some figures which are going to change, and there are some figures which are going to be stable.
Financial fixed asset is stable.
It's seven hundred and seventy.
It's a historical purchasing price you paid for the transaction.
Cash is going to be incremented or decremented by the increase or decrease in the cash position, which is a cash flow statement, uh, the previous slide.
Shareholders' equity is going to be incremented by the profit generated by the financial holding.
Interestingly, at the end of the process, in nineteen ninety-nine, what's going to happen to the shareholders' equity is that it's going to receive the profit generated by the financial holding at the end.
It's going to also receive an equity issue, which is a redemption of the bond redeemable in shares, which is going to be transformed into equity.
And there will be a kind of a loss because the company is going to repay the subordinated bond at a price which is more than the initial nominal value of the bond and is going to decrement the shareholders' equity.
Bond redeemable into shares, twenty-three, up to the transformation into equity.
Subordinated bonds, sixty-seven, up to the moment it is repaid.
Senior debt is repaid little by little, and the Secap financing is incremented each and every year by the cash in excess generated by Secap and transferred to the financial holding.
So what do we observe here? Is that the cash situation is always positive, not that much, but always positive, and we don't need to increase the debt at the level of the financial Secap, which was exactly the constraint which was imposed by the financing.
Now, we can consolidate ten years of activity of Financière Secap, of the financial holding, P&L, cash flow statement, and balance sheet.
But when you look at cash in and cash outlays, it's quite interesting to observe the balance.
In fact, the company is going to cash in a billion dividends received from Secap, one hundred percent of the net income.
Cash returns to holding because there is cash in excess of the net income, and the tax savings on the interest expense because of tax consolidation between the mother company and the investment.
This is cash in.
What about cash out? Interest expense for the senior debt, a bit more than three hundred and fifty million.
The redemption of the senior debt, four hundred and fifty million.
The sum is eight hundred million, so it is a consumption of cash for the company.
And now there will be some coupons paid for the subordinated bond, for the bond redeemable to shares, and the redemption of the subordinated debt, which is almost one billion....
cash in minus cash out is exactly the nine million which you observe in the balance sheet, cash at the end of the process when everything is over at the end of this LBO.
When we look at the initial financing structure of the company and the evolution of the financial statements of Financière Secap throughout the years, there are a few observations.
First, it's a sophisticated financial engineering.
It's a financial structure with no options, no optional instruments.
There is no convertible bond, there is no warrant.
It's just about straight subordinated debt, straight senior debt, and bonds redeemable into shares, but with no option in sight.
You don't need to put options in financial engineering.
Now, what about the leverage? Equity plus the bond, which is redeemable in shares, which is deferred equity issue, is one hundred and eighty-three million.
Subordinated and senior debt, it's five hundred and seventeen.
So it's a high leverage.
The original debt is three times the equity and four times the EBITDA, even though the EBITDA is quite high.
So it's really a leverage, a highly leveraged buyout.
Then we have the financing instruments, and we have calculated the rate of return, which can be predicted.
The interest rate hierarchy is fully respected.
There is a remuneration for the risk.
Now, is it enough? The answer is yes, because the company found investors for each and every layer of financing instrument.
Last but not least, it was absolutely fundamental to demonstrate the holding company's financial equilibrium.
Each and every year, of course, we have the balance sheet, which is balancing, but cash in and cash out is absolutely okay each and every year and at the end.
So we have achieved something which is cash inflows are high enough to meet the financial requirements of the company, pay the coupon, and repay the loans.
A few comments to conclude this module.
First, we have observed that there is a lot of debt in the financing.
This is really a highly leveraged buyout.
But if you introduce debt in a financing, you introduce financial risk.
Can you afford financial risk? The answer is yes, if the operating risk is low, which is exactly the case.
The operating risk is quite modest.
Because of the contract, the cash flows are quite stable.
There is visibility in this industry.
As a consequence, the operating risk is low.
But you cannot combine a high operating risk and a high financing risk.
This is absolutely fundamental.
Second thing, there is a lot of debt, and the financial structure is quite tight.
At the end of the day, we need each and every currency unit coming from Secap to make the balance of the cash flow statement of the Financière Secap.
Imagine that there are some difficulties for La Financière Secap.
Well, there will be some buffer, some security coming from Secap's balance sheet, because at the level of the industrial companies, there is no debt.
So you can put a little bit of debt at the level of Secap in order to make sure that La Financière Secap is going to have enough financing.
Now, these are predictions.
It's about forecasts for the future.
Now you have to transform a forecast into a reality, and this is why this is true for this LBO and for each and every LBO, the quality of execution is going to be absolutely critical.
Now you have to generate the revenues, the EBITDA, the deferred income, the deferred revenues, the negative working capital requirement, the capital expenditures, the free cash flow, et cetera.
Now you have to transform predictions into reality, and then it's going to be the success of the transaction.
But quality of execution is absolutely critical.
Last but not least, we have proposed a financial structure which is quite clever, but it is not the one unique financial structure which can be considered.
It's relevant, it's coherent in terms of yield, of cash, of risk, of return, et cetera.
But there is no options, there is no convertibles.
We could imagine other financial structures.
The objective was absolutely not to try to optimize the balance sheet, but there was a constraint.
The investors are going to be happy, because if the investor satisfaction is not met by the financial engineering, there will be simply no investor, and then there will be no leveraged buyout.
Investor satisfaction is the heart of this issue, is the heart of this structure.