Consolidation course, module 6 // 70% control subsidiary
WEBVTT
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In the previous module, we took full control
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of the target, which perfectly justified the global
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integration of accounts.
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However, it often happens
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that the takeover is effective but partial.
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It's this module we are going to consider a 70% stake,
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which gives us real control of the target
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with more than two thirds of the shares,
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but there are still shareholders of the target who,
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although now largely in the minority,
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pursue the capital adventure
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and remain partners as a group how to account
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for their ownership
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and contribution while providing relevant information
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to the analyst is a subject of the last method
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of consolidations that I will now develop.
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The financial characteristics
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of the transaction are quite the same.
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The only change is the investor takes a 70% stake instead
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of a 100% stake, no capital increase target
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investor and now shareholders are not
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selling all their shares.
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They're selling part of their shares, 70% of their shares.
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This is why the cash disbursement for the investor is going
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to be not 100%,
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but 70% of 300, which is 210.
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The operation business as usual,
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is carried out on the 1st of January of year n plus one.
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We are going to keep the same process for the presentation
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for the balance sheet on the 1st of January n plus one.
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Exactly. At the moment,
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the equity stake is taken by the investor.
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Then the impact of this equity stake, of this equity
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participation on the p
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and l, on the cashflow statement of the investor,
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and we are going to build the balance sheet on the
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31st of December n plus one when the year is over.
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Now, the economic characteristics
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of the operation are quite the same.
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It's a subsidiary.
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It's not a fully owned subsidiary,
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but it's still a subsidiary.
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It's not an equity stake, which is consolidated according
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to the equity method.
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It's not a simple investment.
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It's really a subsidiary which is integrated on a strategic
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and an operational point of view.
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Of course, there is still a legal barrier
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because these are two different companies on a legal point
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of view, but there is no economic barrier.
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Now, what is really interesting in the process is when we
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build the balance sheet on the first of Jerry, we are going
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to integrate 100% of the net assets paid
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by cash and we are going
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to observe the changes in assets on the one hand, equity
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and liabilities on the other hand,
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but the question is why do we integrate?
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100% of the net assets are not say 70%.
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The reason is there is no economic barrier.
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You are not taking 70% of the decisions.
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The decisions you are taking are not affecting
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70% of the company.
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You take all the decisions
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and all your decisions are impacting the whole company,
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100% of the net assets.
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This is why even though you have only 70% of the shares,
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you control 100%
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and then it leads to full integration by 100%.
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Now, if we look at the asset side of the balance sheet,
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we integrate the tangible fixed assets, all of them.
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We integrate 100% of the brands and goodwill.
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You don't own 70% of the brand.
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You own 100% of the brand.
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Then you integrate 100% of inventories
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and accounts receivable and other current operating assets.
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What about cash? Now, what happened to the cash situation
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of the company before the operation?
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Before the investment, we have 500 in the bank account.
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We cash out 210 to buy the 70% of the target
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and then we integrate 100% of the cash account
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of the target, which is 60 total assets, 2000.
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Now let's move to the equity
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and liability side of the balance sheet.
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There's no change in the shareholder's equity
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because there is no capital issue.
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We integrate 100% of the long-term
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and short-term financial debt of the target.
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We integrate the operating liabilities, accounts payable
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and other current operating liabilities,
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and we calculate the sum of equity and liabilities.
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We get 1,910,
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which is quite different from the 2000 we were observing
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building the asset side of the balance sheet.
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Now of course there is a full integration of the accounts,
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which is due to control,
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but 30% of the shares remain the property
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of the shareholders.
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They are now minority shareholders,
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but they are still shareholders
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and involved in the ownership of the target.
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This equity stake is worth 30% of 300,
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which is 90.
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Now we can build the equity
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and liability side of the balance sheet
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and there will be a very significant modification
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not on the shareholders' equity group share.
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Group share means what was invested by the shareholders
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of the parent company.
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No change 900 because there's no capital increase,
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but there will be an additional part
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of the shareholders' equity consolidated,
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which is minority interest.
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Of course, there is full integration due to control,
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but 30% of the targets still belong to its former owners.
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There are minority shareholders,
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but their equity stake can be validated at 30% of
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what you're ready to pay for the whole company, which is 90.
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They are a compliment to the group equity.
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Of course, they are not group equity
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because it's not about the shareholders
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or the parent company.
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It's about the remaining shareholders
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of the control company,
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but they still hold a right on the net asset
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value of the target.
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They remain invested in the target company.
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They are contributing to the financing
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of the target company.
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They are still co-owners of the target company.
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Shareholders' equity represent the ownership
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and the investment, so they have to contribute to their
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consolidated shareholders' equity.
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Then we add a line in the consolidated shareholders' equity.
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We add minority interest
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or non-controlling interest through the group share
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of shareholders equity, and the sum is 990.
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No change in the rest of the balance sheet,
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but at the end of the day, how much do you get 2000
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and why is now the balance sheet balancing?
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Because we have taken into account the contribution,
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the remaining holding of the minority shareholders
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of the target in the financing of the net assets.
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Now, once we've built the balance sheet on the
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1st of January and plus one
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after the equity stake,
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we can now build the income statement
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and cashflow statement for the year.
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Same principles, we add sales, cost of sales,
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investment changes in working capital requirement,
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et cetera, et cetera, and we remove the intra-group flows.
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Now, we are going to calculate the net income,
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which is a bottom line as if the target was fully owned
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by the investor, but still there is part of the net income
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of the target, which does not belong to the parent company.
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30% of them, so we'll have
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to remove from the consulated net income the shares
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that goes to the minority shareholders
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to the non-controlling investors.
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They own 30% of the result of the bottom line of the target.
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Second change we have to take into account the share
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of the dividend, which is paid by the target
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to the minority investors.
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We don't take into account the dividend, which is paid
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by the target to the parent company
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because of consolidation.
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We remove intra group flows
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because this dividend is cash out for one part of the group
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and cash in for the other part of the group.
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They just net each other,
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but what about the 30% of the dividend of the target,
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which is paid to outside shareholders?
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The amount is leaving the group
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and then we have to take
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that into account in a cashflow statement of the group.
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Now, let's start with a p and l. The income statement.
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For your n plus one, you understand
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that the bottom line is the same.
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The bottom line is 132, so 100% of the net income generated
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by the investor, the purchasing company
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and the target represent 132,
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but out of this 132, there are 30%
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of the net income generated by the target,
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which does not belong to the shareholders of the group
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of the parent company.
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You remember that the net income was 60, 30% of 60
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do not belong to the group.
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It's exactly 18, so the net earnings group share is
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what has been generated by the group as the whole 132 minus
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what does not belong to the parent company 18
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because it belongs to it is generated for the
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minority shareholders of the target company.
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Then the net earnings group share are 114.
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It's about the same story
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for the cashflow statement year end plus one
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same construction.
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For the cashflow statement,
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we add the free cash flows generated respectively
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by the parent company on the target and the subsidiary.
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It accounts for 79,
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but you remember that a dividend is paid by the target
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to the parent company.
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The dividend is 40,
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but what is going to stay within the group is 70% of 40.
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What is going to leave the group is 30% of 40
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because this dividend is paid to the minority shareholders
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who do not belong to the group, so we have
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to take into account the fact
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that this cash is leaving the group.
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30% of 40 is 12, how much is left?
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What is the change in cash position for the group?
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It's only 67
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before we build the balance sheet at the end
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of year n plus one.
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There are two fundamental technical dimensions which
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I would like to address.
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The first one is about equity
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and it's equivalent net assets with two perspectives,
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ownership on one side, investment on the other side.
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The second one is about the two dividend lines,
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which you are going to read in a cashflow statement.
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They both represent dividends,
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but the nature is absolutely
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different from one to the other.
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Let's start with equity, net assets,
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ownership and financing.
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What is very interesting in an accounting point of view is
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that equity represents,
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on the one hand the ownership of net assets.
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The shareholders are the owners of the company,
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but on the other hand,
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the equity also represents a contribution
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of these shareholders, so the financing
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of the business and operations.
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So you understand that there are two perspectives which are
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very complimentary, one to the other.
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Now we have to show
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that there is an increase in an net asset, which is owned
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by the shareholders, but it's counterpart,
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which is the increase in equity, demonstrate
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that the shareholders have contributed to the financing
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through the increase in the retain earnings.
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You remember net earnings minus dividends
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because in my case, there is no capital increase.
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This dual perspective
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of equity has a significant impact on the construction
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of the consolidated balance sheet
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and specifically on the reevaluation of minority interests.
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To build a balance sheet, let's start with the asset side
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of the balance sheet, which is quite simple.
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We integrate all the operate,
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we integrate all the operating assets
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and we can observe that there was a change in each
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and every item from the beginning to the end of the year,
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except for the intangible fixed assets which remain
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unchanged at 240 as far as cash
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as a non-operating asset is concerned,
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we observe the integration of the free cash flow,
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but the free cash flow net of the dividend paid
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by the target to the minority interest,
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so we have calculated 67 as a net changing cash position.
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67 plus 350 is 417 total
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balance sheet 2,156.
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Once the asset side of the balance sheet is built, we have
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to move to equity and liabilities
265
00:13:08.185 --> 00:13:10.485
and then we have to take into account the fact that
266
00:13:10.665 --> 00:13:14.445
of course there's global integration which is due
267
00:13:14.445 --> 00:13:19.005
to the control, but 30% of the target shares remain owned
268
00:13:19.305 --> 00:13:23.245
by the minority, the non-controlling investors.
269
00:13:24.115 --> 00:13:27.205
This is a perspective ownership of equity.
270
00:13:28.025 --> 00:13:30.755
This was the ownership perspective of the equity,
271
00:13:31.415 --> 00:13:33.395
but the second one is about financing
272
00:13:34.215 --> 00:13:35.595
the minority shareholders.
273
00:13:35.985 --> 00:13:37.435
They are still on stage
274
00:13:37.855 --> 00:13:40.475
and they contribute to the financing of the net asset,
275
00:13:41.145 --> 00:13:44.035
including the financing of net asset growth.
276
00:13:44.495 --> 00:13:45.755
How do they contribute
277
00:13:45.985 --> 00:13:49.355
through their participation in the growth of the targets?
278
00:13:49.675 --> 00:13:50.715
Retained earnings.
279
00:13:51.785 --> 00:13:53.795
When the target is generating a profit
280
00:13:54.055 --> 00:13:58.195
and is distributing part of its profit, it is contributing
281
00:13:58.195 --> 00:14:01.795
to their financing of the asset growth of their target
282
00:14:02.535 --> 00:14:04.875
by the incremental retain earnings.
283
00:14:05.695 --> 00:14:09.035
Now, the minority shareholders, they contribute to 30%
284
00:14:09.135 --> 00:14:10.675
of this contribution.
285
00:14:11.135 --> 00:14:13.715
It has to show somewhere in the balance sheet.
286
00:14:14.385 --> 00:14:16.435
This is why when we build the equity
287
00:14:16.455 --> 00:14:19.555
and liability side of the consolidated group,
288
00:14:20.385 --> 00:14:21.875
what do we take into account?
289
00:14:22.235 --> 00:14:25.715
Shareholders equity group share is incremented
290
00:14:25.855 --> 00:14:29.955
by the net earnings group share generated by the company
291
00:14:31.055 --> 00:14:33.235
the long term and short term financial
292
00:14:33.305 --> 00:14:34.515
debt accounts payable.
293
00:14:34.515 --> 00:14:38.235
Other current operating liabilities are consolidated exactly
294
00:14:38.375 --> 00:14:42.115
the same way as when we own 100% of the shares,
295
00:14:42.115 --> 00:14:43.835
but what about the minority interest?
296
00:14:44.135 --> 00:14:46.195
The minority shareholders are contributing
297
00:14:46.195 --> 00:14:48.475
to the financing of their target.
298
00:14:49.535 --> 00:14:54.365
Up to the level of 30% as a target is reinvesting one third
299
00:14:54.425 --> 00:14:55.525
of its net income.
300
00:14:55.985 --> 00:14:59.725
You remember net income is 60, dividend is two thirds of 60,
301
00:15:00.305 --> 00:15:02.165
so they retain earnings are 20.
302
00:15:02.985 --> 00:15:04.365
The shareholders as a target.
303
00:15:04.635 --> 00:15:07.645
They contribute to the financing of the target by 20.
304
00:15:08.395 --> 00:15:09.925
What is the share which is
305
00:15:10.405 --> 00:15:12.205
provided by the minority shareholders?
306
00:15:12.505 --> 00:15:17.325
30%. Their equity stake multiplied by 20, 30%
307
00:15:17.325 --> 00:15:19.525
of 60 minus 40 is six.
308
00:15:20.105 --> 00:15:22.525
It is a contribution of the minority shareholders
309
00:15:22.525 --> 00:15:24.005
through the financing of the target.
310
00:15:24.915 --> 00:15:29.095
Now, when we reevaluate the minority interest
311
00:15:30.115 --> 00:15:33.095
by the contribution of the minority shareholders
312
00:15:33.395 --> 00:15:37.375
to the financing of the target through retain earnings,
313
00:15:38.035 --> 00:15:42.615
so the 90 becomes 96, we use exactly the same method
314
00:15:42.795 --> 00:15:46.535
as the one we were using when we were consolidating the
315
00:15:46.615 --> 00:15:47.655
financial fixed assets.
316
00:15:47.655 --> 00:15:49.415
According to the equity method,
317
00:15:50.195 --> 00:15:51.935
we use the same equity method
318
00:15:52.075 --> 00:15:56.575
to reevaluate the minority interest when the target company
319
00:15:57.035 --> 00:15:59.735
is generating a profit and paying a dividend.
320
00:16:00.155 --> 00:16:01.575
Now we have completed the equity
321
00:16:01.575 --> 00:16:02.975
and liability side of the penalty.
322
00:16:03.555 --> 00:16:06.535
We calculate the equity group share,
323
00:16:06.835 --> 00:16:08.975
we add the minority interest to get the
324
00:16:09.535 --> 00:16:11.055
consolidated shareholders' equity.
325
00:16:11.955 --> 00:16:14.335
We add the long term and short term financial debt.
326
00:16:14.395 --> 00:16:16.535
We add the operating liabilities
327
00:16:16.715 --> 00:16:19.535
and we get 2,156, which matches
328
00:16:19.645 --> 00:16:21.615
with the asset side of the balance sheet.
329
00:16:21.995 --> 00:16:25.735
Second technical dimension, the two dividend lines.
330
00:16:25.875 --> 00:16:28.455
In a cashflow statement, you remember
331
00:16:28.455 --> 00:16:31.175
that the assumption was from the very beginning in order
332
00:16:31.195 --> 00:16:32.695
to simplify the calculation
333
00:16:32.695 --> 00:16:34.815
that the parent company was not paying
334
00:16:34.915 --> 00:16:36.255
any dividend to its shareholders.
335
00:16:37.315 --> 00:16:38.415
Now we are going to change
336
00:16:38.915 --> 00:16:40.535
and adopt a new hypothesis,
337
00:16:40.535 --> 00:16:43.975
which is a parent company decides to per dividend equal
338
00:16:44.035 --> 00:16:47.455
to 40 to its own group shareholders.
339
00:16:48.645 --> 00:16:51.415
What will be the impact on the cashflow statement?
340
00:16:51.645 --> 00:16:54.295
When you build the cashflow statement, there is no change up
341
00:16:54.295 --> 00:16:56.815
to the moment you calculate the free cashflow.
342
00:16:57.005 --> 00:16:58.335
It's still 79.
343
00:16:59.075 --> 00:17:02.535
Now, we'll have to take into account two cash outflows,
344
00:17:02.825 --> 00:17:05.135
which are two dividend outflows,
345
00:17:05.795 --> 00:17:07.575
but they are of very different nature.
346
00:17:08.195 --> 00:17:10.335
The first one is a dividend, which is distributed
347
00:17:10.395 --> 00:17:11.455
by the parent company
348
00:17:11.635 --> 00:17:13.855
to its shareholders, and you remember that.
349
00:17:13.995 --> 00:17:15.815
Now, we took as a hypothesis
350
00:17:15.815 --> 00:17:17.655
that the company is distributing 40.
351
00:17:18.285 --> 00:17:20.295
This is cash for the group,
352
00:17:20.635 --> 00:17:22.135
but there is another dividend,
353
00:17:22.225 --> 00:17:24.055
which is a cash out for the company.
354
00:17:24.555 --> 00:17:27.135
It is a part of the dividend which was distributed
355
00:17:27.355 --> 00:17:29.735
by the target, not to the parent company,
356
00:17:29.955 --> 00:17:33.215
but to the minority shareholders to the minority interest.
357
00:17:33.835 --> 00:17:38.495
So we have two cash out. One is 40, the second one is 12.
358
00:17:38.835 --> 00:17:43.655
The change in cash position is 79 minus these two dividends,
359
00:17:43.705 --> 00:17:45.535
which is 27,
360
00:17:46.235 --> 00:17:49.605
but you understand that there might be some confusion when
361
00:17:49.605 --> 00:17:51.165
you read a cashflow statement.
362
00:17:51.665 --> 00:17:55.205
The fact that there are two dividend lines is exactly the
363
00:17:55.205 --> 00:17:57.205
consequence of the group perspective.
364
00:17:58.005 --> 00:18:02.365
A cashflow statement is inflows minus outflows.
365
00:18:03.065 --> 00:18:05.885
Now, there are two dividend outflows
366
00:18:06.025 --> 00:18:07.845
of two different natures.
367
00:18:08.545 --> 00:18:11.685
The distinction between these two dividend lines has a very
368
00:18:11.755 --> 00:18:15.325
significant impact on a cashflow analysis
369
00:18:15.625 --> 00:18:18.365
of the group consolidated group.
370
00:18:19.555 --> 00:18:21.645
When you analyze the evolution of the cash,
371
00:18:21.645 --> 00:18:24.245
which is generated by the group, you understand
372
00:18:24.245 --> 00:18:27.485
that these dividends are of completely different natures.
373
00:18:28.465 --> 00:18:31.205
One is very much what does not belong to you,
374
00:18:31.705 --> 00:18:33.605
and the other one is a remuneration
375
00:18:33.905 --> 00:18:35.845
of the shareholders of the parent company.
376
00:18:36.115 --> 00:18:39.325
This is completely different perspective, which has
377
00:18:39.325 --> 00:18:40.445
to be taken into account.
378
00:18:41.205 --> 00:18:42.805
A few comments before we get
379
00:18:42.805 --> 00:18:45.125
to the last point of this module.
380
00:18:46.305 --> 00:18:47.405
We are controlling.
381
00:18:48.025 --> 00:18:50.685
We are controlling with 70%, not 100%,
382
00:18:50.705 --> 00:18:51.765
but we are controlling.
383
00:18:51.955 --> 00:18:53.805
This leads to full integration.
384
00:18:54.905 --> 00:18:59.085
Now, part of the integrated net assets remains owned
385
00:18:59.085 --> 00:19:01.805
by investors who are no more the majority
386
00:19:02.465 --> 00:19:04.285
on full orders of the company.
387
00:19:04.955 --> 00:19:06.685
They have become a minority,
388
00:19:06.785 --> 00:19:08.525
but they have to be taken into account
389
00:19:08.525 --> 00:19:10.325
because they contribute to the life,
390
00:19:10.345 --> 00:19:12.045
to the development of the target.
391
00:19:12.975 --> 00:19:16.165
There are two accounting impacts of this statement.
392
00:19:16.815 --> 00:19:19.565
First, the p and l is going to be impacted by the fact
393
00:19:19.565 --> 00:19:21.885
that the net income grow share
394
00:19:22.585 --> 00:19:25.245
is not the net income consolidated.
395
00:19:25.905 --> 00:19:29.125
You have to take out of the consolidated net income,
396
00:19:29.305 --> 00:19:32.845
the part which is still owned by the minority shareholders.
397
00:19:33.635 --> 00:19:35.725
There's an impact in the cashflow statement
398
00:19:35.985 --> 00:19:38.765
and we have to take into account the part of the dividend,
399
00:19:38.765 --> 00:19:41.965
which is paid by the target, not to the parent company.
400
00:19:42.455 --> 00:19:43.805
Intra group flows, but
401
00:19:43.805 --> 00:19:46.285
to the external minority shareholders.
402
00:19:47.025 --> 00:19:49.805
We have also observed on an accounting point of view
403
00:19:50.235 --> 00:19:52.805
that we have to reevaluate the minority interest.
404
00:19:53.415 --> 00:19:55.965
These investors, they are still part of the story
405
00:19:56.025 --> 00:19:58.165
of the target and they contribute.
406
00:19:58.835 --> 00:20:01.245
They contribute, and the revaluation is going
407
00:20:01.245 --> 00:20:03.845
to use the same equity method
408
00:20:04.035 --> 00:20:07.405
that we were using when we were holding a significant equity
409
00:20:07.415 --> 00:20:10.485
stake in a company which was not controlled.
410
00:20:11.105 --> 00:20:13.245
Now, there's a last point I would like to address,
411
00:20:13.415 --> 00:20:17.925
which is about the financial leverage of the group
412
00:20:18.845 --> 00:20:19.845
consolidated group.
413
00:20:20.195 --> 00:20:22.085
What is a definition of the leverage?
414
00:20:22.465 --> 00:20:24.765
The financial leverage is calculated,
415
00:20:24.885 --> 00:20:27.725
dividing the net financial debt long term
416
00:20:28.235 --> 00:20:31.605
plus short term minus cash by the ebitda,
417
00:20:31.945 --> 00:20:33.885
the cash operating profit.
418
00:20:34.875 --> 00:20:39.845
Basically, it gives you years or months, how many months
419
00:20:39.945 --> 00:20:42.165
or years of EBITDA do you need
420
00:20:42.165 --> 00:20:45.245
to invest in the repayment in the redemption
421
00:20:45.245 --> 00:20:46.525
of the net financial debt?
422
00:20:46.985 --> 00:20:50.605
Of course, a financial leverage gives a very interesting
423
00:20:50.605 --> 00:20:54.285
information about the risk taken by the financial creditors.
424
00:20:55.065 --> 00:20:56.885
Now, we can calculate the financial
425
00:20:57.445 --> 00:20:59.485
leverage from the consolidated accounts,
426
00:21:00.105 --> 00:21:01.805
but in the consolidated accounts,
427
00:21:01.805 --> 00:21:03.045
what are you going to observe?
428
00:21:03.665 --> 00:21:06.605
The net financial debt, 100% of it.
429
00:21:06.905 --> 00:21:10.645
The ebitda, 100% of it, so the financial leverage,
430
00:21:10.645 --> 00:21:13.125
which is going to be calculated from the consolidated
431
00:21:13.125 --> 00:21:17.205
accounts is 100% of that financial debt divided by 100%
432
00:21:17.205 --> 00:21:20.765
of ebitda, but 30% of the net financial debt
433
00:21:21.305 --> 00:21:24.205
and 30% of the EBITDA should not be included.
434
00:21:24.265 --> 00:21:25.285
Is this calculation
435
00:21:25.835 --> 00:21:28.645
because they don't belong to the group, they are
436
00:21:29.075 --> 00:21:30.085
outside the group.
437
00:21:31.295 --> 00:21:34.485
Let's recompute their consolidated leverage
438
00:21:34.825 --> 00:21:37.045
and the real leverage
439
00:21:37.395 --> 00:21:41.765
with an exact calculation taking 100% of the parent company,
440
00:21:42.025 --> 00:21:45.285
the investor, and only 70% of their target.
441
00:21:46.255 --> 00:21:50.445
Let's first calculate the consolidated financial leverage.
442
00:21:51.485 --> 00:21:55.925
Consolidated net financial debt is 263.
443
00:21:56.475 --> 00:22:00.125
It's long term, 440 plus short term,
444
00:22:00.425 --> 00:22:03.645
240 minus cash, 470
445
00:22:05.025 --> 00:22:08.165
EBITDA consolidated directly comes from the p
446
00:22:08.165 --> 00:22:10.325
and l 394.
447
00:22:10.625 --> 00:22:14.645
We divide one by the other and we get 0.67.
448
00:22:15.425 --> 00:22:16.765
Now let's move to the calculation
449
00:22:16.765 --> 00:22:18.845
of the real financial leverage.
450
00:22:19.965 --> 00:22:24.085
Interestingly, the actual real net financial debt is quite
451
00:22:24.105 --> 00:22:28.445
the same because there is almost no net interest bearing
452
00:22:28.475 --> 00:22:30.205
debt in the balance sheet of the target,
453
00:22:31.225 --> 00:22:35.685
but the target company is very profitable, so it's a B, D.
454
00:22:35.685 --> 00:22:38.245
A contribution is quite significant to the group.
455
00:22:39.075 --> 00:22:41.485
Then if you calculate the EBDA, which is owned
456
00:22:41.505 --> 00:22:44.685
by the mother company, which includes 100%
457
00:22:44.685 --> 00:22:48.765
of the parent company and only 70% of the EBDA the target,
458
00:22:49.385 --> 00:22:51.245
we don't get 394.
459
00:22:51.465 --> 00:22:53.805
We get much less 366.
460
00:22:54.585 --> 00:22:59.365
Now, when you divide 261, which is quite the same as 263
461
00:23:00.025 --> 00:23:01.925
by 366,
462
00:23:01.975 --> 00:23:05.125
which is much less than 394,
463
00:23:05.665 --> 00:23:09.165
you get a significantly higher real financial
464
00:23:09.685 --> 00:23:11.125
leverage 0.71.
465
00:23:12.225 --> 00:23:15.725
Now you understand that 0.6 7.71.
466
00:23:16.155 --> 00:23:18.125
It's not a very dramatic situation,
467
00:23:18.545 --> 00:23:20.365
but we can transform the figures
468
00:23:20.585 --> 00:23:22.765
and get to a dramatic situation.
469
00:23:23.645 --> 00:23:25.005
I am going to propose you a new
470
00:23:25.005 --> 00:23:26.885
calculation changing two parameters.
471
00:23:27.815 --> 00:23:29.205
First, the equity stake
472
00:23:29.205 --> 00:23:32.925
of the parent company in the target is down from 70%
473
00:23:33.385 --> 00:23:34.445
to 60%.
474
00:23:34.865 --> 00:23:37.285
Second, I am going to significantly
475
00:23:38.125 --> 00:23:39.445
leverage the parent company.
476
00:23:40.505 --> 00:23:43.885
I'm going to replace in a retain earning 600 by 100,
477
00:23:44.345 --> 00:23:47.365
so I reduce the equity by 500.
478
00:23:48.265 --> 00:23:51.685
The 500 are going to show in the long-term financial debt,
479
00:23:51.685 --> 00:23:54.085
which is going to be incremented in my calculation
480
00:23:54.715 --> 00:23:56.325
from 400 to 900.
481
00:23:57.475 --> 00:23:59.765
What happens in the financial leverage calculation?
482
00:24:00.825 --> 00:24:04.045
It obviously significantly changes the figure.
483
00:24:04.825 --> 00:24:09.605
The consolidated net financial debt is now 756,
484
00:24:09.905 --> 00:24:14.365
and the consolidated EBDA is 394.
485
00:24:15.065 --> 00:24:16.365
Though at the end of the day,
486
00:24:16.505 --> 00:24:20.485
the consolidated financial leverage is 1.92.
487
00:24:21.315 --> 00:24:23.645
What about the real financial leverage?
488
00:24:24.385 --> 00:24:26.965
You understand that when the debt is in the parent company
489
00:24:27.385 --> 00:24:30.285
and a very big chunk of the EBITDA is generated
490
00:24:30.345 --> 00:24:31.645
by the subsidiary,
491
00:24:32.185 --> 00:24:33.965
the figures are going to be quite different.
492
00:24:34.545 --> 00:24:36.925
The actual net financial debt is quite the same
493
00:24:36.925 --> 00:24:38.845
as the consolidated net financial debt,
494
00:24:39.105 --> 00:24:42.565
but the EBITDA own is significantly down
495
00:24:42.915 --> 00:24:47.325
because I reduced the equity stake from 70 to 60.
496
00:24:48.115 --> 00:24:52.045
Then the real financial leverage is two point 11.
497
00:24:53.175 --> 00:24:56.835
It means that the financial leverage moves from consolidated
498
00:24:57.625 --> 00:25:01.315
less than two, 1.9, two two, real
499
00:25:01.945 --> 00:25:04.075
more than two, two point 11.
500
00:25:05.455 --> 00:25:07.035
Why might it be an issue
501
00:25:08.125 --> 00:25:10.895
when you raise debt from financial creditors?
502
00:25:11.275 --> 00:25:12.375
You write a contract.
503
00:25:12.715 --> 00:25:14.775
In the contract there are plenty of closes.
504
00:25:14.925 --> 00:25:16.975
Some of them are named covenants.
505
00:25:18.005 --> 00:25:20.975
Basically, a covenant describes the evolution of the roles
506
00:25:21.035 --> 00:25:22.455
and duties of the lender
507
00:25:22.755 --> 00:25:26.775
and the borrower when there are significant changes in the
508
00:25:26.775 --> 00:25:29.655
financial characteristics, in the financial statements
509
00:25:29.875 --> 00:25:31.295
of the borrowing company.
510
00:25:31.865 --> 00:25:35.615
Under some circumstances, a covenant might say
511
00:25:35.615 --> 00:25:39.295
that if the financial leverage goes up from less than two
512
00:25:39.395 --> 00:25:43.455
to more than two, there might be some changes in the level
513
00:25:43.475 --> 00:25:46.455
of interest which is paid by the borrowing company.
514
00:25:47.385 --> 00:25:51.335
Maybe the debt can become callable, not immediately,
515
00:25:51.795 --> 00:25:55.415
but sooner than anticipated in the initial contract,
516
00:25:55.465 --> 00:25:58.215
which puts very much a company at risk on a
517
00:25:58.215 --> 00:25:59.375
liquidity point of view.
518
00:26:00.275 --> 00:26:04.895
So you understand that calculating a real financial leverage
519
00:26:04.915 --> 00:26:07.175
as opposed to a consolidated one
520
00:26:07.775 --> 00:26:10.415
provides some extremely relevant information
521
00:26:10.435 --> 00:26:12.415
to the financial analyst.
522
00:26:13.005 --> 00:26:14.815
It's about the cost of financing.
523
00:26:14.965 --> 00:26:17.295
It's about the liquidity risk of the parent company.
524
00:26:17.795 --> 00:26:19.655
In this module, I have described
525
00:26:19.715 --> 00:26:22.255
how you consolidate the accounts of a company
526
00:26:23.165 --> 00:26:24.535
when you control the company,
527
00:26:25.155 --> 00:26:27.535
but you don't hone 100% of the shares.
528
00:26:27.675 --> 00:26:28.935
In this case, 70%.
529
00:26:29.905 --> 00:26:32.895
There are very significant impact on an accounting point
530
00:26:32.895 --> 00:26:36.255
of view because you have to show the manner interest.
531
00:26:36.415 --> 00:26:37.775
A non-controlling interest.
532
00:26:38.275 --> 00:26:40.255
You have to show on the balance sheet that part
533
00:26:40.255 --> 00:26:42.535
of the equity of the company, which you fully
534
00:26:42.535 --> 00:26:45.125
Integrate, does not belong to you,
535
00:26:45.355 --> 00:26:47.205
does not belong to the parent company.
536
00:26:48.095 --> 00:26:52.365
There are also some implications on the financial risk
537
00:26:52.455 --> 00:26:55.405
evaluation, the financial leverage calculation.
538
00:26:55.775 --> 00:26:59.365
Under some circumstances, it might be quite important
539
00:26:59.585 --> 00:27:02.445
for the financial analyst to be able
540
00:27:02.445 --> 00:27:05.605
to calculate the real financial leverage as opposed
541
00:27:05.605 --> 00:27:07.165
to the consolidated one.
542
00:27:07.825 --> 00:27:10.565
Now, I will propose you some concluding source
543
00:27:11.105 --> 00:27:12.125
in the last module
544
00:27:12.265 --> 00:27:15.005
of this course on consolidating the accounts.
In the previous module, we took full control of the target, which perfectly justified the global integration of accounts.
However, it often happens that the takeover is effective but partial.
It's this module we are going to consider a 70% stake, which gives us real control of the target with more than two thirds of the shares, but there are still shareholders of the target who, although now largely in the minority, pursue the capital adventure and remain partners as a group how to account for their ownership and contribution while providing relevant information to the analyst is a subject of the last method of consolidations that I will now develop.
The financial characteristics of the transaction are quite the same.
The only change is the investor takes a 70% stake instead of a 100% stake, no capital increase target investor and now shareholders are not selling all their shares.
They're selling part of their shares, 70% of their shares.
This is why the cash disbursement for the investor is going to be not 100%, but 70% of 300, which is 210.
The operation business as usual, is carried out on the 1st of January of year n plus one.
We are going to keep the same process for the presentation for the balance sheet on the 1st of January n plus one.
Exactly.
At the moment, the equity stake is taken by the investor.
Then the impact of this equity stake, of this equity participation on the p and l, on the cashflow statement of the investor, and we are going to build the balance sheet on the 31st of December n plus one when the year is over.
Now, the economic characteristics of the operation are quite the same.
It's a subsidiary.
It's not a fully owned subsidiary, but it's still a subsidiary.
It's not an equity stake, which is consolidated according to the equity method.
It's not a simple investment.
It's really a subsidiary which is integrated on a strategic and an operational point of view.
Of course, there is still a legal barrier because these are two different companies on a legal point of view, but there is no economic barrier.
Now, what is really interesting in the process is when we build the balance sheet on the first of Jerry, we are going to integrate 100% of the net assets paid by cash and we are going to observe the changes in assets on the one hand, equity and liabilities on the other hand, but the question is why do we integrate? 100% of the net assets are not say 70%.
The reason is there is no economic barrier.
You are not taking 70% of the decisions.
The decisions you are taking are not affecting 70% of the company.
You take all the decisions and all your decisions are impacting the whole company, 100% of the net assets.
This is why even though you have only 70% of the shares, you control 100% and then it leads to full integration by 100%.
Now, if we look at the asset side of the balance sheet, we integrate the tangible fixed assets, all of them.
We integrate 100% of the brands and goodwill.
You don't own 70% of the brand.
You own 100% of the brand.
Then you integrate 100% of inventories and accounts receivable and other current operating assets.
What about cash? Now, what happened to the cash situation of the company before the operation? Before the investment, we have 500 in the bank account.
We cash out 210 to buy the 70% of the target and then we integrate 100% of the cash account of the target, which is 60 total assets, 2000.
Now let's move to the equity and liability side of the balance sheet.
There's no change in the shareholder's equity because there is no capital issue.
We integrate 100% of the long-term and short-term financial debt of the target.
We integrate the operating liabilities, accounts payable and other current operating liabilities, and we calculate the sum of equity and liabilities.
We get 1,910, which is quite different from the 2000 we were observing building the asset side of the balance sheet.
Now of course there is a full integration of the accounts, which is due to control, but 30% of the shares remain the property of the shareholders.
They are now minority shareholders, but they are still shareholders and involved in the ownership of the target.
This equity stake is worth 30% of 300, which is 90.
Now we can build the equity and liability side of the balance sheet and there will be a very significant modification not on the shareholders' equity group share.
Group share means what was invested by the shareholders of the parent company.
No change 900 because there's no capital increase, but there will be an additional part of the shareholders' equity consolidated, which is minority interest.
Of course, there is full integration due to control, but 30% of the targets still belong to its former owners.
There are minority shareholders, but their equity stake can be validated at 30% of what you're ready to pay for the whole company, which is 90.
They are a compliment to the group equity.
Of course, they are not group equity because it's not about the shareholders or the parent company.
It's about the remaining shareholders of the control company, but they still hold a right on the net asset value of the target.
They remain invested in the target company.
They are contributing to the financing of the target company.
They are still co-owners of the target company.
Shareholders' equity represent the ownership and the investment, so they have to contribute to their consolidated shareholders' equity.
Then we add a line in the consolidated shareholders' equity.
We add minority interest or non-controlling interest through the group share of shareholders equity, and the sum is 990.
No change in the rest of the balance sheet, but at the end of the day, how much do you get 2000 and why is now the balance sheet balancing? Because we have taken into account the contribution, the remaining holding of the minority shareholders of the target in the financing of the net assets.
Now, once we've built the balance sheet on the 1st of January and plus one after the equity stake, we can now build the income statement and cashflow statement for the year.
Same principles, we add sales, cost of sales, investment changes in working capital requirement, et cetera, et cetera, and we remove the intra-group flows.
Now, we are going to calculate the net income, which is a bottom line as if the target was fully owned by the investor, but still there is part of the net income of the target, which does not belong to the parent company.
30% of them, so we'll have to remove from the consulated net income the shares that goes to the minority shareholders to the non-controlling investors.
They own 30% of the result of the bottom line of the target.
Second change we have to take into account the share of the dividend, which is paid by the target to the minority investors.
We don't take into account the dividend, which is paid by the target to the parent company because of consolidation.
We remove intra group flows because this dividend is cash out for one part of the group and cash in for the other part of the group.
They just net each other, but what about the 30% of the dividend of the target, which is paid to outside shareholders? The amount is leaving the group and then we have to take that into account in a cashflow statement of the group.
Now, let's start with a p and l.
The income statement.
For your n plus one, you understand that the bottom line is the same.
The bottom line is 132, so 100% of the net income generated by the investor, the purchasing company and the target represent 132, but out of this 132, there are 30% of the net income generated by the target, which does not belong to the shareholders of the group of the parent company.
You remember that the net income was 60, 30% of 60 do not belong to the group.
It's exactly 18, so the net earnings group share is what has been generated by the group as the whole 132 minus what does not belong to the parent company 18 because it belongs to it is generated for the minority shareholders of the target company.
Then the net earnings group share are 114.
It's about the same story for the cashflow statement year end plus one same construction.
For the cashflow statement, we add the free cash flows generated respectively by the parent company on the target and the subsidiary.
It accounts for 79, but you remember that a dividend is paid by the target to the parent company.
The dividend is 40, but what is going to stay within the group is 70% of 40.
What is going to leave the group is 30% of 40 because this dividend is paid to the minority shareholders who do not belong to the group, so we have to take into account the fact that this cash is leaving the group.
30% of 40 is 12, how much is left? What is the change in cash position for the group? It's only 67 before we build the balance sheet at the end of year n plus one.
There are two fundamental technical dimensions which I would like to address.
The first one is about equity and it's equivalent net assets with two perspectives, ownership on one side, investment on the other side.
The second one is about the two dividend lines, which you are going to read in a cashflow statement.
They both represent dividends, but the nature is absolutely different from one to the other.
Let's start with equity, net assets, ownership and financing.
What is very interesting in an accounting point of view is that equity represents, on the one hand the ownership of net assets.
The shareholders are the owners of the company, but on the other hand, the equity also represents a contribution of these shareholders, so the financing of the business and operations.
So you understand that there are two perspectives which are very complimentary, one to the other.
Now we have to show that there is an increase in an net asset, which is owned by the shareholders, but it's counterpart, which is the increase in equity, demonstrate that the shareholders have contributed to the financing through the increase in the retain earnings.
You remember net earnings minus dividends because in my case, there is no capital increase.
This dual perspective of equity has a significant impact on the construction of the consolidated balance sheet and specifically on the reevaluation of minority interests.
To build a balance sheet, let's start with the asset side of the balance sheet, which is quite simple.
We integrate all the operate, we integrate all the operating assets and we can observe that there was a change in each and every item from the beginning to the end of the year, except for the intangible fixed assets which remain unchanged at 240 as far as cash as a non-operating asset is concerned, we observe the integration of the free cash flow, but the free cash flow net of the dividend paid by the target to the minority interest, so we have calculated 67 as a net changing cash position.
67 plus 350 is 417 total balance sheet 2,156.
Once the asset side of the balance sheet is built, we have to move to equity and liabilities and then we have to take into account the fact that of course there's global integration which is due to the control, but 30% of the target shares remain owned by the minority, the non-controlling investors.
This is a perspective ownership of equity.
This was the ownership perspective of the equity, but the second one is about financing the minority shareholders.
They are still on stage and they contribute to the financing of the net asset, including the financing of net asset growth.
How do they contribute through their participation in the growth of the targets? Retained earnings.
When the target is generating a profit and is distributing part of its profit, it is contributing to their financing of the asset growth of their target by the incremental retain earnings.
Now, the minority shareholders, they contribute to 30% of this contribution.
It has to show somewhere in the balance sheet.
This is why when we build the equity and liability side of the consolidated group, what do we take into account? Shareholders equity group share is incremented by the net earnings group share generated by the company the long term and short term financial debt accounts payable.
Other current operating liabilities are consolidated exactly the same way as when we own 100% of the shares, but what about the minority interest? The minority shareholders are contributing to the financing of their target.
Up to the level of 30% as a target is reinvesting one third of its net income.
You remember net income is 60, dividend is two thirds of 60, so they retain earnings are 20.
The shareholders as a target.
They contribute to the financing of the target by 20.
What is the share which is provided by the minority shareholders? 30%.
Their equity stake multiplied by 20, 30% of 60 minus 40 is six.
It is a contribution of the minority shareholders through the financing of the target.
Now, when we reevaluate the minority interest by the contribution of the minority shareholders to the financing of the target through retain earnings, so the 90 becomes 96, we use exactly the same method as the one we were using when we were consolidating the financial fixed assets.
According to the equity method, we use the same equity method to reevaluate the minority interest when the target company is generating a profit and paying a dividend.
Now we have completed the equity and liability side of the penalty.
We calculate the equity group share, we add the minority interest to get the consolidated shareholders' equity.
We add the long term and short term financial debt.
We add the operating liabilities and we get 2,156, which matches with the asset side of the balance sheet.
Second technical dimension, the two dividend lines.
In a cashflow statement, you remember that the assumption was from the very beginning in order to simplify the calculation that the parent company was not paying any dividend to its shareholders.
Now we are going to change and adopt a new hypothesis, which is a parent company decides to per dividend equal to 40 to its own group shareholders.
What will be the impact on the cashflow statement? When you build the cashflow statement, there is no change up to the moment you calculate the free cashflow.
It's still 79.
Now, we'll have to take into account two cash outflows, which are two dividend outflows, but they are of very different nature.
The first one is a dividend, which is distributed by the parent company to its shareholders, and you remember that.
Now, we took as a hypothesis that the company is distributing 40.
This is cash for the group, but there is another dividend, which is a cash out for the company.
It is a part of the dividend which was distributed by the target, not to the parent company, but to the minority shareholders to the minority interest.
So we have two cash out.
One is 40, the second one is 12.
The change in cash position is 79 minus these two dividends, which is 27, but you understand that there might be some confusion when you read a cashflow statement.
The fact that there are two dividend lines is exactly the consequence of the group perspective.
A cashflow statement is inflows minus outflows.
Now, there are two dividend outflows of two different natures.
The distinction between these two dividend lines has a very significant impact on a cashflow analysis of the group consolidated group.
When you analyze the evolution of the cash, which is generated by the group, you understand that these dividends are of completely different natures.
One is very much what does not belong to you, and the other one is a remuneration of the shareholders of the parent company.
This is completely different perspective, which has to be taken into account.
A few comments before we get to the last point of this module.
We are controlling.
We are controlling with 70%, not 100%, but we are controlling.
This leads to full integration.
Now, part of the integrated net assets remains owned by investors who are no more the majority on full orders of the company.
They have become a minority, but they have to be taken into account because they contribute to the life, to the development of the target.
There are two accounting impacts of this statement.
First, the p and l is going to be impacted by the fact that the net income grow share is not the net income consolidated.
You have to take out of the consolidated net income, the part which is still owned by the minority shareholders.
There's an impact in the cashflow statement and we have to take into account the part of the dividend, which is paid by the target, not to the parent company.
Intra group flows, but to the external minority shareholders.
We have also observed on an accounting point of view that we have to reevaluate the minority interest.
These investors, they are still part of the story of the target and they contribute.
They contribute, and the revaluation is going to use the same equity method that we were using when we were holding a significant equity stake in a company which was not controlled.
Now, there's a last point I would like to address, which is about the financial leverage of the group consolidated group.
What is a definition of the leverage? The financial leverage is calculated, dividing the net financial debt long term plus short term minus cash by the ebitda, the cash operating profit.
Basically, it gives you years or months, how many months or years of EBITDA do you need to invest in the repayment in the redemption of the net financial debt? Of course, a financial leverage gives a very interesting information about the risk taken by the financial creditors.
Now, we can calculate the financial leverage from the consolidated accounts, but in the consolidated accounts, what are you going to observe? The net financial debt, 100% of it.
The ebitda, 100% of it, so the financial leverage, which is going to be calculated from the consolidated accounts is 100% of that financial debt divided by 100% of ebitda, but 30% of the net financial debt and 30% of the EBITDA should not be included.
Is this calculation because they don't belong to the group, they are outside the group.
Let's recompute their consolidated leverage and the real leverage with an exact calculation taking 100% of the parent company, the investor, and only 70% of their target.
Let's first calculate the consolidated financial leverage.
Consolidated net financial debt is 263.
It's long term, 440 plus short term, 240 minus cash, 470 EBITDA consolidated directly comes from the p and l 394.
We divide one by the other and we get 0.67.
Now let's move to the calculation of the real financial leverage.
Interestingly, the actual real net financial debt is quite the same because there is almost no net interest bearing debt in the balance sheet of the target, but the target company is very profitable, so it's a B, D.
A contribution is quite significant to the group.
Then if you calculate the EBDA, which is owned by the mother company, which includes 100% of the parent company and only 70% of the EBDA the target, we don't get 394.
We get much less 366.
Now, when you divide 261, which is quite the same as 263 by 366, which is much less than 394, you get a significantly higher real financial leverage 0.71.
Now you understand that 0.6 7.71.
It's not a very dramatic situation, but we can transform the figures and get to a dramatic situation.
I am going to propose you a new calculation changing two parameters.
First, the equity stake of the parent company in the target is down from 70% to 60%.
Second, I am going to significantly leverage the parent company.
I'm going to replace in a retain earning 600 by 100, so I reduce the equity by 500.
The 500 are going to show in the long-term financial debt, which is going to be incremented in my calculation from 400 to 900.
What happens in the financial leverage calculation? It obviously significantly changes the figure.
The consolidated net financial debt is now 756, and the consolidated EBDA is 394.
Though at the end of the day, the consolidated financial leverage is 1.92.
What about the real financial leverage? You understand that when the debt is in the parent company and a very big chunk of the EBITDA is generated by the subsidiary, the figures are going to be quite different.
The actual net financial debt is quite the same as the consolidated net financial debt, but the EBITDA own is significantly down because I reduced the equity stake from 70 to 60.
Then the real financial leverage is two point 11.
It means that the financial leverage moves from consolidated less than two, 1.9, two two, real more than two, two point 11.
Why might it be an issue when you raise debt from financial creditors? You write a contract.
In the contract there are plenty of closes.
Some of them are named covenants.
Basically, a covenant describes the evolution of the roles and duties of the lender and the borrower when there are significant changes in the financial characteristics, in the financial statements of the borrowing company.
Under some circumstances, a covenant might say that if the financial leverage goes up from less than two to more than two, there might be some changes in the level of interest which is paid by the borrowing company.
Maybe the debt can become callable, not immediately, but sooner than anticipated in the initial contract, which puts very much a company at risk on a liquidity point of view.
So you understand that calculating a real financial leverage as opposed to a consolidated one provides some extremely relevant information to the financial analyst.
It's about the cost of financing.
It's about the liquidity risk of the parent company.
In this module, I have described how you consolidate the accounts of a company when you control the company, but you don't hone 100% of the shares.
In this case, 70%.
There are very significant impact on an accounting point of view because you have to show the manner interest.
A non-controlling interest.
You have to show on the balance sheet that part of the equity of the company, which you fully Integrate, does not belong to you, does not belong to the parent company.
There are also some implications on the financial risk evaluation, the financial leverage calculation.
Under some circumstances, it might be quite important for the financial analyst to be able to calculate the real financial leverage as opposed to the consolidated one.
Now, I will propose you some concluding source in the last module of this course on consolidating the accounts.